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  • #69038
    divyanshu gupta
    Participant

    Let p be a prime. Then prove that x2=-1modp has solutions if and only if p=2 or p=1mod4

    #69541
    Shirsendu Roy
    Spectator

    If p=2 we have the solution x=1, for any odd prime we can write Wilson's theorem in the form

    product of all j's from 1 to (p-1)/2 j(p-j) is congruent to -1(mod p) but j(p-j) is congruent to (-j)^{2}(mod p) and we get (-1)^{(p-1)/2}product of all j's from 1 to (p-1)/2 j^{2} is congruent to -1(mod p)

    hence for p congruent 1(mod 4) we get a solution of x^{2} is congruent to (-1)(mod p) suppose p=-2 or, p not congruent to 1(mod 4) then p is congruent to 3(mod 4)

    In this case, if for some integer  r, we have r^{2} is congruent to -1(mod p) then (x^{2})^(p-1)/2 is congruent to (-1)^(p-1)/2(mod p)

    hence x^(p-1) is congruent to -1(mod p) since (p,x) =1

    we get p/2, a contradiction.

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