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  • #71111
    Crazy Gamer
    Participant

    please help me to solve question number 1&2(only)

    #71259
    venkat jothi
    Participant

    by using the definition of permutation we can get an equivalent form

    $1+1\times 1!+2\times 2!+3\times 3!+\cdots+n\times n! $

    now , $r\times r! =r\times r! +r!-r!= (r+1)r!-r!$

    now, $1\times 1!=2!-1!,$

    and $2\times 2!=3!-2!$

    and so on

    $n\times n!=(n+1)!-n! $

    the first equation becomes,

    $1+2!-1!+3!-2!+4!-3!+\cdots+(n+1)!-n! = (n+1)!$

    by converting the terms into permutation definition we get above result

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