Kamal Kamra

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  • in reply to: Question Help #69552
    Kamal Kamra
    Participant

    Now we know that $a,b,c$ are positive real numbers and $abc=1$.
    $$\frac{a^2+b^2+c^2}{3} \geq {(a^2b^2c^2)}^\frac{1}{3} \space \space \space \space \space (By\space AM\geq GM)) $$
    $$\frac{a+b+c}{3} \geq {(abc)}^\frac{1}{3} \space \space \space \space \space (By\space AM\geq GM))$$
    Now subtracting both inequalities give:
    $$a(a-1)+b(b-1)+c(c-1)\geq {(a^2b^2c^2)}^\frac{1}{3}-{(abc)}^\frac{1}{3}$$
    Now because $abc=1$ and $a,b,c$ are positive real numbers:
    $$a(a-1)+b(b-1)+c(c-1)\geq 0$$
    QED

    in reply to: Doubt #69419
    Kamal Kamra
    Participant

    page 3

    in reply to: Doubt #69417
    Kamal Kamra
    Participant

    page 2

    in reply to: Doubt #69415
    Kamal Kamra
    Participant

    Also please verify this proof and provide an alternate proof if present.

Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)