No the statement is false.
Let's take an example,
if we make a rule and declare that the difference between x and y isĀ divisible by 3 which makes an equivalence relation
so in this way we can partition many sets like
{0,3,6,9,12...............}
{1,4,7..................}
{2,5,8,11..............}
by this we cannot partition all the numbers because it is infinite
and we can get the equivalence relation back so this proves that the statement is false.